The section of the letter to the Romans we know as chapter 3 is somewhat difficult to interpret. I will state again that I am not writing a verse-by-verse commentary but rather an exploration of the themes that run throughout this letter which is also a book-length essay.
The main thrust of this passage is verse 9: "What then? Are we any better off? No, not at all; for we have already charged that all, both Jews and Greeks, are under the power of sin." (NRSV) Paul is preparing to expound further on the theme of equality before God and that all need his forgiveness and redemption. First, though, in verses 1 through 8, he makes an argument that is baffling to us. I am asking your leave to try out a hypothesis: that Paul is walking through the arguments and accusations that the Christians in the Roman church had been throwing at each other and that had been reported to him.
This is just a hypothesis and should not be taken as any sort of definitive interpretation. Based on what Paul says in 1 through 8, I imagine that the Gentile or Greek Christians had questioned the advantage that the Jews claimed they had in knowing about or accessing the favor of God and the value of circumcision. Many Jews had been unfaithful to God through history so consequently that nullifies their advantage. No, replied the Jews, the sinfulness of our forefathers served to confirm that God is just. Well, then why should anyone be condemned as a sinner if God's glory is shown by it? replied the Gentiles.
If this is the topic of argument, then what Paul says in verses 1 to 8 makes eminent sense. The Jews have the advantage of receiving the "oracles" of God (his message) first, before anyone else. Although some were unfaithful, God is always faithful. This should obviate the entire argument between Jewish and Greek Christians. No one has any excuse for their rebellion against or unfaithfulness to God.
Then Paul states in verse 9 that although the Greek Christians cannot claim to be better Christians than the Jewish ones, neither are the Jewish believers better off. Then he quotes from two psalms (14 and 53) and Ecclesiastes 7:20 to the effect that no one is righteous (right with God, saved by their good works or ethical behavior, etc.). We are all rebellious.
Then Paul argues that the purpose of the law (Torah) was to silence the mouths of those living under it and to hold the entire world accountable to God. Through the Torah we can know what is sinful and learn that we ourselves are sinful (rebellious against God). The NRSV translates "... no human being will be justified in" the sight of God "by deeds prescribed in the law." However, Paul actually wrote "no flesh will be justified." The word "flesh" (sarx) is used by Paul in various of his letters always to mean human nature, that is, rebellious and proud, self-satisfied behavior.
In verse 21 Paul says that "apart from the law, the righteousness of God has been disclosed and is attested by the law and the prophets." (NRSV) This saying is clear just on the surface. It helps, however, to note that the Hebrew scriptures are called by the three sections of text: torah, navi'im ve ctuvim (Pentateuch or first five books of the Bible, prophets, and writings--Daniel, Esther, Ruth, Chronicles, etc.). Jesus drew his message from all three sections of the Hebrew bible. Paul says that both the first five books and the prophets, which sometimes are read as standing in tension with each other, attest to the fact that all of us are made right with God (only) through faith in Jesus Christ. God makes no distinction of persons on any basis. It is in the context of all this discussion that Paul says the quote often heard in church: "all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God." The next verse is part of the same sentence and thought unit: (but they are) justified (brought into right relationship with God) freely, as a gift, of God's grace (willingness to forgive if we will accept it) through the work of Jesus Christ. Paul interprets Jesus' work as being a redemption (making free by buying back). Then for those who still see God as needing to be appeased (not a position I take, but common enough now and back then) Paul says that Jesus, through his obedience that led to being executed on a cross provided whatever sacrifice of atonement may be needed, forgiving past sins and, through faithfulness to him, making people right with God.
In the last paragraph of the chapter (remember that the original text was written without paragraphs, chapters, verses, or even division between words) Paul concludes that, as a result of what he has presented, it becomes clear that no one has any grounds to boast (that they are better off with God as compared to anyone else by virtue of ethnicity or obeying laws). We are made right with God through faith apart from any works of the law; moreover circumcision is immaterial. God is the God of all peoples both Jews and all Gentiles (the rest of the world) and the only way to become right with God is faith in Jesus. The section ends with Paul echoing the teaching of Jesus: the Torah is not being overthrown, rather its true purpose is being revealed and brought to fruition.
One last matter. The Greek word for faith (pistis) also encloses the concept of faithfulness. Faith is not an assent to propositions. It is trusting Jesus to be, now and forever, who he said he was, which is recorded in the Gospels. This trust should lead to faithfulness in living. Easy to understand, hard to do.
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